OK, what I'm trying to say, is, forget the examples that I'm using - I'm a beginner with music theory and can't give you theoretically correct examples.

Anyways, when someone says "I'm going to solo in X Phrygian over this progression which is in Y major," does this mean that you use the notes in the X major scale to form your solo?

That's all my question is - I'm not worried about what will fit or technicalities.